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IAPP CIPP-US (Certified Information Privacy Professional/United States (CIPP/US)) Certification Exam is an internationally recognized certification exam for professionals who are interested in understanding the regulations and laws that govern privacy in the United States. CIPP-US Exam covers the concepts of privacy, data protection, and compliance with regulations such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) and the California Consumer Privacy Act (CCPA).

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IAPP CIPP-US (Certified Information Privacy Professional/United States) certification is a globally recognized credential that demonstrates an individual’s expertise in the field of data privacy. It is designed for professionals who work in the United States and deal with the intricacies of the country’s data privacy laws and regulations. Certified Information Privacy Professional/United States (CIPP/US) certification exam confirms the candidate’s understanding of the legal and regulatory frameworks that concern the collection, use, and transfer of personal data.

IAPP Certified Information Privacy Professional/United States (CIPP/US) Sample Questions (Q110-Q115):

NEW QUESTION # 110
Under the Fair and Accurate Credit Transactions Act (FACTA), what is the most appropriate action for a car dealer holding a paper folder of customer credit reports?

Answer: A

Explanation:
The Disposal Rule is a provision of the Fair and Accurate Credit Transactions Act (FACTA) that requires businesses and individuals to take appropriate measures to dispose of sensitive information about consumers, such as credit reports, that are derived from consumer reports. The Disposal Rule is intended to reduce the risk of identity theft and fraud by preventing unauthorized access to or use of the information. According to the Disposal Rule, reasonable steps for disposal include burning, pulverizing, or shredding papers that contain consumer report information so that they cannot be read or reconstructed.
In this scenario, the most appropriate action for a car dealer holding a paper folder of customer credit reports is to follow the Disposal Rule by having the reports shredded. This would ensure that the car dealer complies with the FACTA and protects the privacy and security of the customers' personal data.


NEW QUESTION # 111
Which of the following best describes how federal anti-discrimination laws protect the privacy of private-sector employees in the United States?

Answer: C

Explanation:
Federal anti-discrimination laws, such as Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, the Equal Pay Act of 1963, the Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967, and the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990, prohibit employers from discriminating against employees or applicants based on certain protected characteristics, such as race, color, religion, sex, national origin, age, disability, and genetic information. These laws also limit the types of information that employers can collect, use, disclose, or retain about employees or applicants,in order to prevent discrimination or invasion of privacy. For example, employers cannot ask about an applicant's medical history, disability status, genetic information, or religious beliefs, unless they are relevant to the job or a bona fide occupational qualification. Employers also cannot use such information to make adverse employment decisions, such as hiring, firing, promotion, or compensation, unless they are justified by a legitimate business necessity or a reasonable accommodation. Employers must also safeguard the confidentiality of such information and dispose of it properly when it is no longer needed. References:
* Federal Laws Prohibiting Job Discrimination Questions And Answers
* Laws Enforced by EEOC
* Employment and Anti-Discrimination Laws in the Workplace
* Protections Against Discrimination and Other Prohibited Practices
* 3. Who is protected from employment discrimination?


NEW QUESTION # 112
More than half of U.S. states require telemarketers to?

Answer: D

Explanation:
According to the IAPP CIPP/US Study Guide, more than half of U.S. states require telemarketers to register with the state before conducting business within the state. This registration requirement may involve paying a fee, posting a bond, or providing information about the telemarketer's identity, location, and business practices. The purpose of this requirement is to protect consumers from fraudulent or deceptive telemarketing calls and to facilitate the enforcement of state laws and regulations.


NEW QUESTION # 113
SCENARIO
Please use the following to answer the next QUESTION:
You are the chief privacy officer at HealthCo, a major hospital in a large U.S. city in state A. HealthCo is a HIPAA-covered entity that provides healthcare services to more than 100,000 patients. A third-party cloud computing service provider, CloudHealth, stores and manages the electronic protected health information (ePHI) of these individuals on behalf of HealthCo. CloudHealth stores the data in state B. As part of HealthCo's business associate agreement (BAA) with CloudHealth, HealthCo requires CloudHealth to implement security measures, including industry standard encryption practices, to adequately protect the data.
However, HealthCo did not perform due diligence on CloudHealth before entering the contract, and has not conducted audits of CloudHealth's security measures.
A CloudHealth employee has recently become the victim of a phishing attack. When the employee unintentionally clicked on a link from a suspicious email, the PHI of more than 10,000 HealthCo patients was compromised. It has since been published online. The HealthCo cybersecurity team quickly identifies the perpetrator as a known hacker who has launched similar attacks on other hospitals - ones that exposed the PHI of public figures including celebrities and politicians.
During the course of its investigation, HealthCo discovers that CloudHealth has not encrypted the PHI in accordance with the terms of its contract. In addition, CloudHealth has not provided privacy or security training to its employees. Law enforcement has requested that HealthCo provide its investigative report of the breach and a copy of the PHI of the individuals affected.
A patient affected by the breach then sues HealthCo, claiming that the company did not adequately protect the individual's ePHI, and that he has suffered substantial harm as a result of the exposed data. The patient's attorney has submitted a discovery request for the ePHI exposed in the breach.
Which of the following would be HealthCo's best response to the attorney's discovery request?

Answer: D

Explanation:
The HIPAA privacy rule establishes national standards to protect individuals' medical records and other individually identifiable health information (collectively defined as "protected health information") and applies to health plans, health care clearinghouses, and those health care providers that conduct certain health care transactions electronically (collectively defined as "covered entities")1 The rule requires appropriate safeguards to protect the privacy of protected health information and sets limits and conditions on the uses and disclosures that may be made of such information without an individual's authorization1 The rule also gives individuals rights over their protected health information, including rights to examine and obtain a copy of their health records, to direct a covered entity to transmit to a third party an electronic copy of their protected health information in an electronic health record, and to request corrections1 The HIPAA privacy rule permits a covered entity to disclose protected health information for the litigation in response to a court order, subpoena, discovery request, or other lawful process, provided the applicable requirements of 45 CFR 164.512 (e) for disclosures for judicial and administrative proceedings are met2 These requirements include:
* In response to a court order or administrative tribunal order, the covered entity may disclose only the protected health information expressly authorized by such order2
* In response to a subpoena, discovery request, or other lawful process that is not accompanied by a court order or administrative tribunal order, the covered entity must receive satisfactory assurances that the party seeking the information has made reasonable efforts to ensure that the individual who is the subject of the information has been given notice of the request, or that the party seeking the information has made reasonable efforts to secure a qualified protective order2
* A qualified protective order is an order of a court or administrative tribunal or a stipulation by the parties to the litigation or administrative proceeding that prohibits the parties from using or disclosing the protected health information for any purpose other than the litigation or proceeding for which such information was requested andrequires the return to the covered entity or destruction of the protected health information (including all copies made) at the end of the litigation or proceeding2 Option A is incorrect because the HIPAA privacy rule does not only permit disclosure for payment, treatment or healthcare operations. The rule also allows disclosure for other purposes, such as public health, research, law enforcement, judicial and administrative proceedings, as long as the applicable conditions and limitations are met1 Option B is correct because it is consistent with the HIPAA privacy rule's requirement for disclosures for judicial and administrative proceedings. By responding with a request for satisfactory assurances such as a qualified protective order, HealthCo is ensuring that the protected health information will be used only for the litigation and will be returned or destroyed afterwards2 Option C is incorrect because it is not consistent with the HIPAA privacy rule's requirement for disclosures for judicial and administrative proceedings. By turning over all of the compromised patient records to the plaintiff's attorney, HealthCo is disclosing more information than necessary and may violate the privacy rights of other individuals who are not parties to the lawsuit2 Option D is incorrect because it is not consistent with the HIPAA privacy rule's requirement for disclosures for judicial and administrative proceedings. By responding with a redacted document only relative to the plaintiff, HealthCo is not providing satisfactory assurances that the protected health information will be used only for the litigation and will be returned or destroyed afterwards2 References: 1: Summary of the HIPAA Privacy Rule | HHS.gov 2: May a covered entity use or disclose protected health information for litigation? | HHS.gov


NEW QUESTION # 114
Which of the following is NOT one of three broad categories of products offered by data brokers, as identified by the U.S. Federal Trade Commission (FTC)?

Answer: D

Explanation:
Data brokers are companies that collect, analyze, and share personal information about consumers for various purposes, such as marketing, risk mitigation, and research. The U.S. Federal Trade Commission (FTC) conducted a study of nine data brokers in 2012 and published a report in 2014, titled "Data Brokers: A Call for Transparency and Accountability". In the report, the FTC identified three broad categories of products offered by data brokers, based on the primary purposes for which the products are used by their customers. The three categories are: 12
* Marketing products: These products help customers target potential customers, tailor marketing offers, measure the effectiveness of marketing campaigns, and improve customer relationships. Marketing products include data elements, segments, scores, lists, and analytics that are derived from consumer data. Data brokers may provide marketing products through direct marketing (such as postal mail, e- mail, or phone), online marketing (such as online display ads, social media, or mobile apps), or marketing analytics (such as measuring consumer behavior, preferences, and trends)12
* Risk mitigation products: These products help customers verify and authenticate consumers' identities, prevent fraud, and comply with legal obligations. Risk mitigation products include identity verification, identity authentication, fraud prevention, and compliance products that are based on consumer data. Data brokers may provide risk mitigation products through various methods, such as matching consumer-provided information with data broker records, generating questions or challenges based on consumer data, or providing scores or indicators of fraud risk or compliance status12
* Research products: These products help customers understand consumer behavior, preferences, and trends, as well as market conditions, industry developments, and economic factors. Research products include reports, studies, statistics, and insights that are derived from consumer data. Data brokers may provide research products through various formats, such as online portals, dashboards, newsletters, or custom reports12 The FTC report did not include location of individuals as one of the three broad categories of products offered by data brokers. Location of individuals may be a specific type of product or service that some data brokers provide, but it is not a primary purpose for which data brokers use consumer data. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Location of individuals (such as identifying an individual from partial information).
References:
* Data Brokers: A Call For Transparency and Accountability: A Report of the Federal Trade Commission (May 2014)
* IAPP CIPP/US Certified Information Privacy Professional Study Guide, Chapter 5: State Privacy Laws, Section 5.3: Data Broker Laws


NEW QUESTION # 115
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